Midbits

Coenzyme is :
a.
Always a protein
c.
Always an inorganic compound

b.
Often a metal
d.
Often a vitamin



ANS: D PTS: 1

2. Enzymes are named after their substrates by adding suffix :
a.
-in
b.
-ase
c.
-ose
d.
–sin



ANS: B PTS: 1

3. Enzyme exist in the cells as-
a.
Solid
c.
Colloid

b.
Crystals
d.
None of the above



ANS: C PTS: 1

4. An enzyme brings about :
a.
Reduction in activation energy
c.
Increase in activation energy

b.
Increase in reaction time
d.
All the above



ANS: A PTS: 1

5. Which of the following statement is “NOT’ correct
a.
All enzymes are thermolabile
c.
All enzymes are proteins

b.
All enzymes are biocatalysts
d.
All proteins are enzymes



ANS: D PTS: 1

6. A __________is a biocatalyst that increases the rate of the reaction without bei

ng changed.
a.
Aluminum oxide
c.
Enzyme

b.
Silicon dioxide
d.
Hydrogen peroxide



ANS: C PTS: 1

7. What is the nature of an enzyme?
a.
Vitamin
b.
Lipid
c.
Carbohydrate
d.
Protein



ANS: D PTS: 1

8. Name the coenzyme of riboflavin (B2)?
a.
NAD or NADP
c.
Coenzyme A

b.
FAD and FMN
d.
Thiamine pyrophosphate



ANS: B PTS: 1

9. Which of this vitamin is associated with the coenzyme Biolytic?
a.
Nicotinic acid
b.
Thiamine
c.
Biotin
d.
Pyridoxine



ANS: C PTS: 1

10. Name the enzyme secreted by pancreas?
a.
Pepsin
c.
Trypsin

b.
Chymotrypsin
d.
Alcohol dehydrogenase



ANS: C PTS: 1

11. What is the function of phosphorylase?
a.
Transfer inorganic phosphate
c.
Use H2O2 as the electron acceptor

b.
Transfer a carboxylate group
d.
Transfer amino group



ANS: A PTS: 1

12. Mark the CORRECT function of enzyme, Peptidase?
a.
Cleave phosphodiester bond
c.
Remove phosphate from a substrate

b.
Cleave amino bonds
d.
Removal of H2O



ANS: B PTS: 1

13. Which of the following reaction is catalyzed by Lyase?
a.
Breaking of bonds
c.
Intramolecular rearrangement of bonds

b.
Formation of bonds
d.
Transfer of group



ANS: A PTS: 1

14. Which of the following is an example of ligases enzyme?
a.
Mutases
b.
Epimerizes
c.
Racemases
d.
Carboxylases



ANS: D PTS: 1

15. Which of the following is not a catalytic strategy for an enzyme to perform spec

ific reaction?
a.
Covalent catalysis
c.
Michaelis constant

b.
Metal ion catalysis
d.
Acid-base catalysis



ANS: C PTS: 1

16. What is the SI unit of enzyme activity?
a.
Km
b.
Kat
c.
Kcat
d.
Vmax



ANS: B PTS: 1

17. Which of the following is not an example of irreversible enzyme inhibitor?
a.
Cyanide
c.
Diisopropyl phosphoflouridate (DIPF)

b.
Sarin
d.
Statin drugs



ANS: D PTS: 1

18. Line weaver-Burk plot is also known as______
a.
Double reciprocal plot

b.
Hanes-Woolf plot
                     c. Eadie-Hofstee plot
                     d. Steady-state equation



ANS: A PTS: 1

19. Name the enzyme which is found in tears, sweat, and an egg white?
a.
Ribozymes
b.
Lysozyme
c.
Zymogens
d.
Isozymes



ANS: B PTS: 1

20. Law of thermodynamics which states that energy can neither be created nor be des

troyed is___________
a.
The second law
c.
First law

b.
Third law
d.
Zero-order kinetics



ANS: C PTS: 1

21. Which of the following equation shows the relationship between free energy chang

e (?G) and the change in entropy (?S), under constant temperature and pressure?
a.
?G = T?H – ?S
b.
b ?G = T?H/?S
c.
?G = ?H/T?S
d.
?G = ?H – T?S



ANS: D PTS: 1

22. What is the value of ?G, when a system is in equilibrium?
a.
?G = 0
b.
?G = 1
c.
?G = -1
d.
?G = ?G0



ANS: A PTS: 1

23. Which of the following factor is not responsible for the actual change in free e

nergy (?G)?
a.
Temperature
c.
The initial concentration

b.
Pressure
d.
pH



ANS: D PTS: 1

24. Which of the following equation gives the relationship between ?G? and Keq?
a.
?G0 = -RT ln Keq
c.
?G = ?G0 (-RT Keq)

b.
?G0 = ln Keq
d.
?G = -RT ln Keq



ANS: A PTS: 1

25. What is the standard free energy change of ATP?
a.
Small and negative
c.
Large and negative

b.
Large and positive
d.
Small and positive



ANS: C PTS: 1

26. Which of the following act as a storage form of high energy phosphate?
a.
Glucose-6-phosphate
c.
Phosphagens

b.
Phosphoenolpyruvate
d.
Glycerol phosphate



ANS: C PTS: 1

27. What is the name of the molecule which donates its electrons?
a.
Reducing agent
c.
Standard reduction potential

b.
Oxidative agent
d.
Oxidant



ANS: A PTS: 1

28. Chemical compounds involved in the process of metabolism is known as ________
a.
Metabolites
b.
Radicals
c.
Catabolites
d.
Intermediates



ANS: A PTS: 1

29. Which of the following has a spiral metabolic pathway?
a.
Glycolysis
c.
Glyoxylate cycle

b.
Citric acid cycle
d.
Fatty acid biosynthesis



ANS: D PTS: 1

30. Name the type of the pathway which is involved in the synthesis of compounds?
a.
Anabolic pathways
c.
Amphibolic pathway

b.
Catabolic pathways
d.
Anapleurotic pathway



ANS: A PTS: 1

31. Which of the following cycle shows Amphibolic pathway?
a.
Glyoxylate
b.
Citric acid cycle
c.
Glycolysis
d.
Lipid metabolism



ANS: B PTS: 1

32. Regulation of metabolic pathway is done by following ways except one, mark the o

ne?
a.
Substrate concentration
c.
Availability of oxygen

b.
Allosteric regulation of enzymes
d.
Extracellular signals i.e. hormones



ANS: C PTS: 1

33. Which of the following is not an enzyme-catalyzed reaction in metabolism?
a.
Isomerization and elimination
c.
Maillard reaction

b.
Internal rearrangement
d.
Free radical reaction



ANS: C PTS: 1

34. Name the inhibition where end products of biosynthesis pathway inhibit the activ

ity of the first enzyme?
a.
Feedback inhibition
c.
Allosteric inhibition

b.
Feedback repression
d.
Competitive inhibition



ANS: A PTS: 1

35. In which of the following phenomenon the end product act as co-repressor and rep

ress the synthesis of metabolic enzymes?
a.
Allosteric regulation
c.
Feedback inhibition

b.
Feedback repression
d.
Regulation by phosphorylation



ANS: B PTS: 1

36. What is the solubility of lipids in water?
a.
Soluble
b.
Partially soluble
c.
Insoluble
d.
Partially insoluble



ANS: C PTS: 1

37. Find the INCORRECT statement about the biological functions of lipids.
a.
Storage form of metabolic fuel
c.
The structural component of membranes

b.
Have a protective function biomes
d.
Exhibit increased catalytic activity



ANS: D PTS: 1

38. Which of the following is an example of unsaturated fatty acids?
a.
Lauric or Dodecanoic
c.
Palmitic or hexadecanoic

b.
Linoleic or octadecatrienoic
d.
Myristic or tetradecanoic



ANS: B PTS: 1

39. Name the two essential fatty acids?
a.
Linoleate and linolenate
c.
Lauric and Myristic

b.
Oleic and Linoleic
d.
Arachidonic and oleic



ANS: A PTS: 1

40. The melting point of fatty acids depends upon chain length and _________
a.
The shape of the fatty acids
c.
Charge on the carbon

b.
The position of the double bond
d.
Degree of unsaturation



ANS: D PTS: 1

41. Which of the following form of lipids are also referred as neutral lipids?
a.
Triacylglycerol
b.
Steroid
c.
Phospholipids
d.
Wax



ANS: A PTS: 1

42. Name the reagent which is used in Saponification?
a.
Ammonia
b.
Acetic acid
c.
NaOH/KOH
d.
Butanone



ANS: C PTS: 1

43. Which of the following is not a component of a phospholipids?
a.
Phosphate
b.
Alcohol
c.
Glycerol
d.
Protein



ANS: D PTS: 1

44. Which of the following phospholipids is considered as a major constituent of ner

vous tissue?
a.
Glycerophospholipid
c.
Inositol

b.
Plasmalogen
d.
Sphingomyelin



ANS: D PTS: 1

45. Which of the following sterol is present in the cell membrane of fungi?
a.
Ergosterol
b.
Stigmasterol
c.
Sitosterol
d.
Campesterol



ANS: A PTS: 1

46. Identify the lowest density lipoprotein among the following?
a.
HDL
b.
LDL
c.
VLDL
d.
Chylomicrons



ANS: D PTS: 1

47. Carbohydrates are also known as___________
a.
carbon
b.
Carbonates
c.
Glycolipids
d.
Polysaccharides



ANS: A PTS: 1

48. Class of carbohydrate which cannot be hydrolyzed further, is known as?
a.
Disaccharides
b.
Polysaccharides
c.
Proteoglycan
d.
Monosaccharide



ANS: D PTS: 1

49. Which class of carbohydrates is considered as non-sugar?
a.
Monosaccharide’s
c.
Polysaccharides

b.
Disaccharides
d.
Oligosaccharides



ANS: C PTS: 1

50. A molecule of amylopectin which contains 1500 glucose residues and is branched a

fter every 30 residues. How many reducing ends are there?
a.
0
b.
1
c.
2
d.
5



ANS: B PTS: 1

51. What is the name of the drug which inhibits Na+/K+ pump across the cell membrane

?
a.
Taxol
b.
Vinblastine
c.
Quinone
d.
Ouabain



ANS: D PTS: 1

52. Which of the following amino sugar are present in the bacterial cell wall?
a.
N-acetylmuramic acid
c.
Aminoglycoside

b.
Sialic acid
d.
Azide



ANS: A PTS: 1

53. Which of the following glycosidic linkage found in maltose?
a.
Glucose (α-1 – 2β) Fructose
c.
Galactose (β1 – 4) Glucose

b.
Glucose (α1 – 4) Glucose
d.
Glucose (β1 – 4) Glucose



ANS: B PTS: 1

54. Which of the following is also known as invert sugar?
a.
Sucrose
b.
Fructose
c.
Dextrose
d.
Glucose



ANS: A PTS: 1

55. Name the major storage form of carbohydrates in animals?
a.
Cellulose
b.
Chitin
c.
Glycogen
d.
Starch



ANS: C PTS: 1

56. Molecules which play the key role in the transfer of genetic information during 

protein synthesis are ___________
a.
DNA
b.
RNA
c.
Nucleic acid
d.
Lipids



ANS: B PTS: 1

57. Which form of structure has been adopted by RNA?
a.
A-form
b.
B-form
c.
Z-form
d.
D-form



ANS: A PTS: 1

58. Which of the following RNA molecule convert information stored in the nucleic ac

id to protein?
a.
tRNA
b.
mRNA
c.
rRNA
d.
snRNA



ANS: B PTS: 1

59. Which of the following RNA molecule convert information stored in the nucleic ac

id to protein?
a.
mRNA
b.
snRNA
c.
rRNA
d.
tRNA



ANS: D PTS: 1

60. Name the secondary structure of tRNA?
a.
Cloverleaf
b.
L-shaped
c.
Duplex
d.
Helix



ANS: A PTS: 1

61. Name the RNA molecule which takes part in the formation of the ribosome?
a.
mRNA
b.
tRNA
c.
rRNA
d.
gRNA



ANS: C PTS: 1

62. Which of the following rRNA molecules have peptidyl transferase activity in prok

aryotes?
a.
23S rRNA
b.
28S rRNA
c.
5S rRNA
d.
18S rRNA



ANS: A PTS: 1

63. Which of the following statement is Incorrect about SnRNA?
a.
It is small nuclear RNA
c.
It is also called snurps

b.
It helps in RNA splicing
d.
It functions in RNA editing



ANS: D PTS: 1

64. What is the role of snRNA in eukaryotes?
a.
Chemical modification
c.
Act as adaptor RNA

b.
RNA splicing
d.
Forms component of the ribosome



ANS: A PTS: 1

65. Name the class of RNA which takes part in RNA Editing?
a.
snRNA
b.
tRNA
c.
gRNA
d.
SiRNA



ANS: C PTS: 1

66. Who described the structure of DNA double helix?
a.
Peter Mitchell
c.
Ernest Uribe

b.
Andre Jagendorf
d.
Watson and Crick



ANS: D PTS: 1

67. Which form of DNA is described by Watson - Crick Model?
a.
B-DNA
c.
A-DNA

b.
Z-DNA
d.
Quadraplex DNA



ANS: A PTS: 1

68. How many base pairs are there in every helical turn of Watson-Crick double helix

 model?
a.
32.3
b.
11.6
c.
20
d.
10.4



ANS: D PTS: 1

69. Which one of the following statement is INCORRECT for Z-DNA?
a.
Left-handed DNA
c.
Only one deep, narrow groove

b.
Mostly in purine-pyrimidine sequences
d.
Anti glycosidic bond conformation



ANS: D PTS: 1

70. The third strand of triple helix is paired in which scheme?
a.
Hoogsteen base pair scheme
c.
Intramolecular base pair scheme

b.
Intermolecular base pair scheme
d.
G-quartet scheme



ANS: A PTS: 1

71. Name the nitrogenous base which is found in abundance in G-quadruplex?
a.
Adenine
b.
Guanine
c.
Cytosine
d.
Thymine



ANS: B PTS: 1

72. The stability and formation of G-quadruplex depends on __________
a.
Monovalent cation
c.
Bivalent cation

b.
Divalent cation
d.
Pentavalent ion



ANS: A PTS: 1

73. Which of this factor is not responsible for thermal Denaturation of DNA?
a.
PH
b.
Temperature
c.
Ionic strength
d.
Humidity



ANS: D PTS: 1

74. What is the term given to the super coiling of circular DNA?
a.
Twist number
b.
Linking number
c.
Writhe number
d.
Cross-linking



ANS: B PTS: 1

75. Which of them is used to introduce negative super coiling in DNA?
a.
Type 1 topoisomerase
c.
Gyrase/ type 2 topoisomerase

b.
Ethidium bromide
d.
SYBR gold



ANS: C PTS: 1

76. The monomeric unit of nucleic acid are called ___________
a.
Nucleotides
b.
Nucleosides
c.
Pyrimidines
d.
Purines



ANS: A PTS: 1

77. Who discovered nucleic acid?
a.
Watson and Crick
c.
Friedrich Miescher

b.
Griffith
d.
Walter Gilbert



ANS: C PTS: 1

78. Name the pyrimidine base which is found in RNA but not in DNA?
a.
Thymine
b.
Uracil
c.
Adenine
d.
Guanine



ANS: B PTS: 1

79. Name those purine bases which are commonly found in DNA and RNA?
a.
Adenine and guanine
c.
Adenine and thymine

b.
Cytosine and thymine
d.
Cytosine and guanine



ANS: A PTS: 1

80. What is the energy currency of the living cell?
a.
GTP
b.
NADH
c.
FADH
d.
ATP



ANS: D PTS: 1

81. The primary structure of DNA and RNA proceeds in which direction?
a.
3’ —–> 5?’
b.
5’ —–> 3’
c.
4’ —–> 6’
d.
3’ —–> 6’



ANS: B PTS: 1

82. Which bond is used to stabilize the double helix of DNA?
a.
Hydrophobic bond
c.
Covalent bond

b.
Hydrogen bond
d.
Ionic bond



ANS: B PTS: 1

83. A purified DNA sample of leaf contains 20.0 mole of guanine. Calculate the appro

ximate percentage of purine residues?
a.
30%
b.
40%
c.
60%
d.
20%



ANS: A PTS: 1

84. Protein folding is a process in which a polypeptide folds in to ___________
a.
2-D structure
b.
Globular form
c.
3-D structure
d.
Linear form



ANS: C PTS: 1

85. Which of them contains all the information required to fold the polypeptide chai

n in its 3-D structure?
a.
DNA sequences
c.
Histone protein

b.
RNA
d.
Amino acid sequences



ANS: D PTS: 1

86. Which of the following name is given to molecular chaperones?
a.
Allosteric protein
c.
Denaturation protein

b.
Heat shock protein
d.
Ribonuclease



ANS: B PTS: 1

87. Which of these heat shock proteins prevent protein misfolding and maintain polyp

eptide chain in the unfolded state?
a.
Hsp60
b.
Hsp28
c.
Hsp70
d.
Hsp32



ANS: C PTS: 1

88. Among all the heat shock proteins which one is known as chaperonins?
a.
Hsp70
b.
Hsp32
c.
Hsp60
d.
Hsp30



ANS: C PTS: 1

89. Which one of the following reagent is also known a Sanger’s reagent?
a.
1-fluoro-2,4-dinitrobenzene (FDNB)
c.
Cyanogen bromide

b.
Phenylisothiocyanate
d.
β-mercaptoethanol



ANS: A PTS: 1

90. Proteolytic enzyme Trypsin cleaves protein at which of these specific sites?
a.
Carboxyl side of Alanine, Glycine
c.
Carboxyl side of aromatic amino acid

b.
Carboxyl side of Lysine or Arginine
d.
The aromatic amino acid



ANS: B PTS: 1

91. In a living organism, strong interactions between molecules are formed by a cert

ain type of bond. Name that?
a.
Hydrogen bonding
c.
Electrostatic interactions

b.
Covalent bond
d.
Vander Waals forces



ANS: B PTS: 1

92. What is the fundamental unit of collagen?
a.
Tropocollagen
b.
Hydroxyproline
c.
Hydroxylysine
d.
Glycine



ANS: A PTS: 1

93. Name the protein which is responsible for extensibility and elasticity of connec

tive tissues.
a.
Collagen
b.
Elastin
c.
Actin
d.
Keratin



ANS: B PTS: 1

94. What is the name of protein which is found in nail, hair, and horns?
a.
Myoglobin
b.
Hemoglobin
c.
Keratin
d.
Collagen



ANS: C PTS: 1

95. The general structure of all amino acids are same except for ___________
a.
Lysine
b.
Glycine
c.
Proline
d.
Alanine



ANS: C PTS: 1

96. Which of these amino acids are not optically active?
a.
Cysteine
b.
Lysine
c.
Arginine
d.
Glycine



ANS: D PTS: 1

97. Which of these are used to measure optical activity?
a.
Polarimeter
b.
Planometer
c.
Psychrometer
d.
Photometer



ANS: A PTS: 1

98. Name the amino acid, which exists in two non-super imposable mirror images of ea

ch other.
a.
Epimer
b.
Anomer
c.
Enantiomer
d.
Chiral carbon



ANS: C PTS: 1

99. Which of these is rare amino acid in a protein?
a.
Leucine and serin
c.
Tryptophan and methionine

b.
Lysine and glutamic acid
d.
Leucine and lysine



ANS: C PTS: 1

100. In which amino acid Imidazole group, an aromatic ring found?
a.
Lysine
b.
Arginine
c.
Histidine
d.
Glutamate



ANS: C PTS: 1

101. What is the maximum wavelength that Tryptophan and tyrosine absorb?
a.
280nm
b.
260nm
c.
257nm
d.
230nm



ANS: A PTS: 1

102. How is the secondary structure of a protein stabilized?
a.
Vander wall forces
c.
Covalent bond

b.
Hydrogen bonding
d.
Hydrophobic bond



ANS: B PTS: 1

103. How many amino acid residues are there in per turn of α-helix?
a.
3.6
b.
4.6
c.
3.0
d.
2.5



ANS: A PTS: 1

104. Which biomolecule is distributed more widely in a cell?
a.
Chloroplast
b.
RNA
c.
DNA
d.
Spaherosome



ANS: B PTS: 1

105. Which is a reducing sugar?
a.
Galactose
c.
Sucrose

b.
Gluconic acid
d.
β-methyl galactosidase



ANS: A PTS: 1

106. Most abundant RNA in the cell
a.
rRNA
b.
mRNA
c.
tRNA
d.
tRNA  threonine



ANS: A PTS: 1

107. Name the simplest amino acid
a.
Alanine
b.
Tyrosine
c.
Asparagine
d.
Glycine



ANS: D PTS: 1

108. Mineral associated with cytochrome is
a.
Mg
b.
Cu and Ag
c.
Fe
d.
Cu



ANS: C PTS: 1

109. The most common secondary structure of proteins is
a.
β-pleated sheet
c.
β-pleated sheet non-parallel

b.
β-pleated sheet parallel
d.
α- helix



ANS: D PTS: 1

110. The term enzyme was coined by
a.
Urey Miller
b.
Pasteur
c.
Kuhne
d.
Buchner



ANS: C PTS: 1

111. β-oxidation occurs in
a.
Nucleus
b.
Cytoplasm
c.
Mitochondria
d.
Chloroplast



ANS: C PTS: 1

112. Khosland’s theory of enzyme action is known as
a.
Lock and key theory
c.
Induced fit theory

b.
Reduced fit theory
d.
Enzyme coenzyme theory



ANS: C PTS: 1

113. A high content of triglycerides are found in
a.
VLDL
b.
LDL
c.
HDL
d.
Chylomicrons



ANS: D PTS: 1

114. Which is the most abundant biomolecule on earth?
a.
Mineral salts
b.
Proteins
c.
Lipids
d.
Carbohydrates



ANS: D PTS: 1

115. In which of the following an anticodon occurs
a.
tRNA
b.
mRNA
c.
rRNA
d.
DNA



ANS: A PTS: 1

116. The fastest enzyme is
a.
DNA gyrase
c.
DNA polymerase

b.
Pepsin
d.
Carbonic anhydrase



ANS: D PTS: 1

117. Which of the following is phospholipids?
a.
Sterol
b.
Cholesterol
c.
Lecithin
d.
Steroid



ANS: C PTS: 1

118. The function of β subunit of polymerase is
a.
Template binding
b.
Catalytic binding
c.
Promoter binding
d.
Cation binding



ANS: B PTS: 1

119. Which of the σ factors is heat stable?
a.
σ 54
b.
σ 70
c.
σ 28
d.
σ 32



ANS: D PTS: 1

120. The mRNA codon of valine is
a.
GUC
b.
UGG
c.
CCA
d.
TTG



ANS: A PTS: 1

121. True replication of DNA is due to
a.
Phosphate backbone
c.
Complementary base pairing rule

b.
Hydrogen bonding
d.
None



ANS: C PTS: 1

122. Mode of DNA replication is
a.
Conservative and bidirectional
c.
Semi conservative and bidirectional

b.
Semi conservative and unidirectional
d.
Conservative and unidirectional



ANS: C PTS: 1

123. Which enzyme is used to join nicks in the DNA strand?
a.
Primase
c.
DNA ligase

b.
DNA polymerase
d.
Endonuclease



ANS: C PTS: 1

124. Which enzyme is used in the unwinding of DNA?
a.
Ligase
b.
Topoisomerase
c.
Helicase
d.
Exonuclease



ANS: C PTS: 1

125. Which of the following processes does not occur in prokaryotes?
a.
Transcription
b.
Splicing
c.
Translation
d.
Replication



ANS: B PTS: 1

126. cDNA is synthesized from RNA by the enzyme
a.
DNA polymerase
c.
DNA convertase

b.
DNA synthetase
d.
Reverse transcriptase



ANS: D PTS: 1

127. DNA synthesis can be measured by estimating the incorporation of radiolabelled
a.
Thymine
b.
Guanine
c.
Cytosine
d.
Adenine



ANS: A PTS: 1

128. How many RNA polymerases are present in a bacterial system?
a.
4
b.
2
c.
1
d.
3



ANS: C PTS: 1

129. Short strands of ——- primer are used in DNA replication.
a.
DNA
b.
RNA
c.
Hiastone
d.
Protein



ANS: B PTS: 1

130. During the formation of a peptide linkage, a(n) is formed.
a.
molecule of water
c.
hydrophobic bond

b.
disulfide bridge
d.
hydrophilic bond



ANS: A PTS: 1

131. Which of the following is responsible for making every amino acid unique?
a.
Amino group
b.
Hydrogen
c.
Carboxyl group
d.
"R" group



ANS: D PTS: 1

132. Enzymes are
a.
DNA
b.
blipids.
c.
carbohydrates
d.
proteins



ANS: D PTS: 1

133. A pentose sugar present in the heart muscle is---
a.
Xylose
b.
Xylulose
c.
Lyxose
d.
Aldose



ANS: C PTS: 1

134. α-D Glucose and β- D glucose are-
a.
Epimers
c.
Keto- Aldose Isomers

b.
Anomers
d.
Optical isomers



ANS: B PTS: 1

135. Glucose can have ————- isomers due to the presence of 4 asymmetric carbon atoms-
a.
4
b.
8
c.
12
d.
16



ANS: D PTS: 1

136. Galactose and Glucose are-
a.
Epimers
c.
Isomers

b.
Anomers
d.
Ketose- Aldose isomers



ANS: A PTS: 1

137. Which of the following monosaccharides is not an Aldose?
a.
Ribose
b.
Glucose
c.
Fructose
d.
Glyceraldehyde



ANS: C PTS: 1

138. The compounds having same structural formula but differing in configuration arou

nd one carbon atom are called-
a.
Optical isomers
b.
Anomers
c.
Stereo isomers
d.
Epimers



ANS: D PTS: 1

139. A Polysaccharide formed by β1?4 Glycosidic linkages is-
a.
Starch
b.
Glycogen
c.
Dextrin
d.
Cellulose



ANS: D PTS: 1

140. Invert sugar is-
a.
Starch
c.
Dextrin

b.
Glycogen
d.
Hydrolytic product of Sucrose



ANS: D PTS: 1

141. The polysaccharide found in the exoskeleton of insects is-
a.
Hyaluronic acid
b.
Chitin
c.
Cellulose
d.
Chondrosamine



ANS: B PTS: 1

142. The typical cyclical structure of Glucose is α and β D-
a.
Glucopyranose
b.
Glucofuranose
c.
Glucoside
d.
Glucosamine



ANS: A PTS: 1

143. Which of the following monosaccharides is not a carboxylic acid?
a.
Glucopyranose
b.
Glucose
c.
Glucoside
d.
Muramic acid



ANS: B PTS: 1

144. Which of following is an anomeric pair?
a.
D-glucose and L-glucose
c.
α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose

b.
D-glucose and D-fructose
d.
α-D-glucose and β-L-glucose



ANS: C PTS: 1

145. Which of these bacterial components is least likely to contain useful antigens?
a.
Cell wall
b.
Flagella
c.
Ribosomes
d.
Capsule



ANS: C PTS: 1

146. Which of the following contains structures composed of N-acetylmuramic acid and 

N- acetylglucosamine?
a.
Mycoplasmas
b.
Amoeba
c.
E.coli
d.
Spheroplast



ANS: C PTS: 1

147. The association of endotoxin in gram-negative bacteria is due to the presence of
a.
Steroids

b.
Peptidoglycan
 c. Lip polysaccharides
 d.         Polypeptide



ANS: A PTS: 1

148. The prokaryotic cell membrane
a.
Contains metabolic enzymes
c.
Regulates the entry and exit of materials

b.
Is selectively permeable
d.
Contains proteins and phospholipids



ANS: D PTS: 1

149. Which of the following is not a recognized cause of diarrhoea?
a.
Vibrio cholerae
c.
Clostridium perfringens

b.
Escherichia coli
d.
Enterococcus faecalis



ANS: D PTS: 1

150. Which of the following is a gram-positive eubacterium?
a.
Actinomyces
c.
Rhizobium

b.
Clostridium
d.
Clostridium, Actinomyces



ANS: D PTS: 1

151. Which of the following microorganisms is not responsible for urinary tract infec

tion?
a.
Proteus mirabilis
c.
Klebsiella pneumonia

b.
Escherichia coli
d.
Bacteroides fragilis



ANS: D PTS: 1

152. Which of the following is diagnosed by serologic means?
a.
Actinomycosis
c.
Pulmonary tuberculosis

b.
Q-f
d.
Gonorrhea



ANS: B PTS: 1

153. The bacterial genus where sterols are present in the cell membrane is
a.
Vibrio
b.
Mycoplasma
c.
Escherichia
d.
Chlamydia



ANS: B PTS: 1

154. The bacterium that infects other gram-negative bacteria is
a.
Proteus mirabilis
c.
Bdellovibrio

b.
Haemophilus influenza
d.
Pseudomonas putida



ANS: C PTS: 1

155. Which phage is used for phage display technique?
a.
T7
b.
M13
c.
?-phage
d.
?6



ANS: B PTS: 1

156. Which of the following is an example of Homology and similarity tool?
a.
BLAST
b.
RasMol
c.
EMBOSS
d.
PROSPECT



ANS: A PTS: 1

157. In which year did the SWISSPROT protein sequence database begin?
a.
1988
b.
1985
c.
1986
d.
1987



ANS: D PTS: 1

158. Which of the following scientists created the first Bioinformatics database?
a.
Dayhoff
b.
Pears
c.
Richard Durbin
d.
Michael.J.Dunn



ANS: A PTS: 1

159. The human genome contains approximately__________.
a.
6 billion base pairs
c.
3 billion base pairs

b.
5 billion base pairs
d.
4 billion base pairs



ANS: C PTS: 1

160. Which of the following tools is used for the identification of motifs?
a.
BLAST
b.
COPIA
c.
PROSPECT
d.
Pattern hunter



ANS: B PTS: 1

161. The first molecular biology server expasy was in the year __________.
a.
1992
b.
1993
c.
1994
d.
1995



ANS: B PTS: 1

162. What is the deposition of cDNA into the inert structure called?
a.
DNA probes
c.
DNA microarrays

b.
DNA polymerase
d.
DNA fingerprinting



ANS: C PTS: 1

163. The identification of drugs through the genomic study is called__________.
a.
Genomics
c.
Pharmacogenetics

b.
Pharmacogenomics
d.
Cheminformatics



ANS: B PTS: 1

164. Which of the following compounds has desirable properties to become a drug?
a.
Fit drug
b.
Lead
c.
Fit compound
d.
All of the above



ANS: B PTS: 1

165. Proteomics refers to the study of __________.
a.
Set of proteins in a specific region of the cell

b.
Biomolecules

c.
Set of proteins

d.
Proteins in the cell



ANS: D PTS: 1

166. The process of finding the relative location of genes on a chromosome is called 

__________.
a.
Gene tracking
c.
Genome mapping

b.
Genome walking
d.
Chromosome walking



ANS: C PTS: 1

167. The term Bioinformatics was coined by __________.
a.
J.D Watson
c.
Margaret Dayhoff

b.
Pauline Hogeweg
d.
Frederic Sanger



ANS: B PTS: 1

168. A Polysaccharide formed by β1?4 Glycosidic linkages is-
a.
Starch
b.
Glycogen
c.
Dextrin
d.
Cellulose



ANS: D PTS: 1

169. Which of the following is the genome of the virus?
a.
DNA
b.
RNA
c.
DNA or RNA
d.
DNA and RNA



ANS: C PTS: 1

170. Which of the following is the largest virus?
a.
Megavirus chilensis
c.
Herpes virus

b.
Arbo virus
d.
Mumps virus



ANS: A PTS: 1

171. Which of the following statements are true about the capsomeres?
a.
It is an individual unit of the capsid
c.
It is a unit of nucleic acid in viruses

b.
It is a viral protein for replication
d.
All of the above



ANS: A PTS: 1

172. Which of the following has a complex symmetry?
a.
T4 phage
b.
Adenovirus
c.
Influenza virus
d.
All of the above



ANS: A PTS: 1

173. Ribozymes are
a.
RNA acting as enzymes
c.
Antibodies acting as enzymes

b.
Ribose sugar acting as enzyme
d.
Protein acting as enzyme



ANS: A PTS: 1

174. Holoenzyme is made of
a.
Apo enzyme and Zymogene
c.
Co-enzyme and Prosthetic group

b.
Apo enzyme and coenzyme
d.
Prosthetic group and Co-factor



ANS: B PTS: 1

175. Which of the following organelle is called ‘Suicidal Bag’
a.
Mitochondria
c.
Lysosome

b.
Endoplasmic reticulum
d.
Ribosome



ANS: C PTS: 1

176. Bile salt surface tension
a.
Increases
c.
Both a and b

b.
Decreases
d.
None of the above



ANS: B PTS: 1

177. Most abundant blood cells in the human body are
a.
WBCs
b.
RBCs
c.
Platelets
d.
Plasma Cells



ANS: B PTS: 1

178. Number of iron atoms in one haemoglobin molecule are
a.
1
b.
3
c.
4
d.
8



ANS: C PTS: 1

179. Example of a Pro-enzyme
a.
Pepsinogen
b.
Trypsin
c.
Chymotrypsin
d.
Lysine



ANS: A PTS: 1

180. Abzymes are
a.
Proteins
b.
DNAs
c.
RNAs
d.
Antibodies



ANS: D PTS: 1

181. Which of the following is not a co-enzyme-
a.
NAD
b.
NADP
c.
FAD
d.
Mn++



ANS: D PTS: 1

182. Which enzymes do not require co-enzymes for their activity?
a.
The extracellular enzymes
c.
The mitochondrial enzymes

b.
The intracellular Enzymes
d.
The Proenzymes



ANS: A PTS: 1

183. What are ribozymes?
a.
RNA acting as enzymes
c.
Ribose sugar acting as enzymes

b.
Protein acting as enzymes
d.
Antibodies acting as enzymes



ANS: A PTS: 1

184. Activity of allosteric enzymes are influenced by
a.
Allosteric modulators
c.
Catalytic site

b.
Allosteric site
d.
None of the above



ANS: A PTS: 1

185. Feedback inhibition means-
a.
Initial product inhibition
c.
Enzymatic induction

b.
End Product inhibition
d.
None of the above



ANS: B PTS: 1

186. In competitive inhibition, inhibitors bears a close structural similarity with t

he
a.
Co-enzyme
b.
Co-factor
c.
Prosthetic group
d.
Substrate



ANS: D PTS: 1

187. Enzyme acts best at a particular temperature called
a.
Catalytic Temperature
c.
Optimum temperature

b.
At normal Body temperature
d.
None of the above



ANS: C PTS: 1

188. “Ping Pong” reaction is the other name for
a.
Single-substrate reaction

b.
Single-displacement bi-substrate reaction

c.
Double-displacement bi-substrate reaction

d.
Lysine



ANS: C PTS: 1

189. Uncatalyzed reaction shows activation energy
a.
Lower
b.
Higher
c.
Moderate
d.
Optimum



ANS: B PTS: 1

190. Lock and Key model is also known as
a.
Template model
c.
Khosland’s Model

b.
Induced fit model
d.
Enzyme-substrate interaction model



ANS: A PTS: 1

191. Which bond is not associated with Enzyme-substrate interaction -
a.
Hydrogen bonds
c.
Di-sulfide bonds

b.
Ionic bonds
d.
Van deer Waal’s force of attraction



ANS: C PTS: 1

192. Which of the following statement is incorrect
a.
Enzymes are protein in nature
c.
Enzymes are thermolabile

b.
Enzymes are colloidal in nature
d.
Enzymes are inorganic catalyst



ANS: D PTS: 1

193. Apo enzymes dissociates from co-enzymes due to
a.
Change in pH
c.
Change in substrate concentration

b.
Change in temperature
d.
Change in inhibitor concentration



ANS: A PTS: 1

194. Which of the following enzyme inhibitions shows decreased Km Value?
a.
Competitive inhibition
c.
Non-competitive inhibition

b.
Un-competitive inhibition
d.
Feedback inhibition



ANS: A PTS: 1

195. Reversible covalent modification involves
a.
Activation of Proenzymes
c.
Denaturation of Proenzymes

b.
Inhibition of Proenzymes
d.
None of the above



ANS: A PTS: 1

196. Amount of total blood volume in an individual is approximately-
a.
50 ml/Kg body weight
c.
90 ml/Kg body weight

b.
60 ml/Kg body weight
d.
80 ml/Kg body weight



ANS: D PTS: 1

197. Normal blood pH is
a.
7.3
b.
7.2
c.
7.4
d.
8.4



ANS: C PTS: 1

198. Ribosome’s are made up of
a.
RNA only
c.
RNA, DNA and Proteins

b.
RNA and Proteins
d.
nucleic acids, proteins and lipids



ANS: B PTS: 1

199. Apo enzyme is a
a.
Protein
b.
Carbohydrate
c.
Vitamin
d.
Amino acid



ANS: A PTS: 1

200. The enzyme which break up nucleic acid into nucleotides are called
a.
Nucleases
b.
Amylases
c.
Proteases
d.
Hydrolyses



ANS: A PTS: 10